Hi, Steve. Here is a case that confused me.
The patient was a 45-year-old female, with bilateral posterior lateral elbow pain fow 2 months.
No obvious history of overuse or rheumatologic diseases.
She was clinically diagnosed as tennis elbow and treated with NSAIDs, but no obvious improvement was achieved.
The point with maximum tenderness corresponded to anconeous muscle.
B-mode US showed a little bit swelling with no obvious change in the echotexture.
However, color Doppler US showed significant increased blood flow.
CEO and PIN were normal.
How can we explain the findings of US? And what might cause these findings?
Thank you, Steve.